OT - Cellphone billing

[William Muriithi]

Hi all,

I have for long noticed a billing difference between America system -
USA and Canada (Not sure about the others as I haven't visited them)
that is really different to that in Europe and Africa.  When A call B,
in Americas, you charge A and B. In Africa and Netherlands, you only
charge A unless B was roaming when he/she received a call.

Now, I am not whining and don't expect Americas to adopt other
countries' systems, but what logic is used to explain the above?  Is
there like a history about it, because that is all I can think of.
Imagine someone sending you a letter and the post office decided to
charge both the recipient and sender? I understand the issue with
metric and English units, other quirks, but dude/dudets, this one
don't make much sense, in my opinion.

Regards,
William
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